Clytemnestra was responsible for her husbands death. However, as we now know, Agamemnon’s death was just a symptom of a family curse. Does the fact that Agamemnon’s death is the result of a curse make Clytemnestra any less responsible for the murder of her husband?
Certain scholars also mention political transitions (e.g., from the custom of blood feud to public courts of law, and/or from a matrilineal to a patrilineal society) as central themes in the Aeschylus’ play.
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